MrMan wrote: ↑October 13th, 2021, 6:15 pm
I am not a lexicographer and I don't do anything with etymology for a living. I got a degree in linguistics over 25 years ago. I didn't focus on English specifically. But a number of secondary sources say certain words came in through Latin, and you can find such derivations if you look etymologies for certain words in the dictionary.
Just clueless.
You said most English words came from Latin. Your words.
I posted a video on YouTube-- not the most academic source, but from someone who seems to have an interest and perhaps some training in either specific languages or linguistics--that said that 29% of English words came from Latin and he had another slightly higher figure from French, and also another website.
It's not 29% of words came directly through Latin - you found out there are about 100 words.
If you want to show more reliable references that show that almost no words came into English from Latin bypassing French, you are free to do so. Latin was an academic and religious language. Monks read it. Even as late as Isaac Newton, Newton wrote in Latin.
Science and academia used Latin, do you think Issac Newton spoke Latin in every day life?
You can say it is impossible for words to have come into English directly from Latin. You may believe that if you wish. You have not presented evidence for it. If you are right, then fine, just present some evidence.
I don't have to produce anything to you

there is a reason why there are only 100-200 Latin derived words in English - because Latin wasn't a working language to the vast majority of the people of England - it isn't hard to work out.
I suppose it is possible 'clever' came into English through Frisian, but more English people in the middle ages probably read Latin than spoke Frisian. I never heard of a Frisian reading monk in England. Academic treatises were not written in Frisian in England.
Do you have any proof of that? I want some proof right now! East Anglian was a dialect similar to Frisian and in fact as late as the early 19th century, East Anglian rural folks and Frisian speakers were mutually intelligible to each other. Frisian speakers were plentiful in East Anglia, Wessex and Essex.
'Clever' also has a different connotation and slightly different connotation than 'intelligent.'
That's right.
Common people didn't speak French, but the fact that the ruling classes used it allowed for words to come in through French. Monks, priests, and scholars used Latin. There were probably far fewer of them than knights, nobility, and members of the royal court. But monks were the ones who preserved a lot of the books and scholars who read Latin dealt were thought leaders in society.
But how much of the population were made up of 'Monks, priests and scholars' not even 1% of the population.
Maybe you should call your alma mater and ask them why you didn't take enough history to know that Latin was used by monks, priests, and scholars in England and the middle ages, and that pre-Anglo-Saxon Roman occupation was not the only contact England had with the language.
I would put my alta mater against your online school anytime you thick twat

Monks, priests etc made up such a miniscule percent of the population that it doesn't count - did you know church services in the UK - especially Catholic services were conducted in Latin up until the late 1960's? Did the priest speak to the parishioners in Latin? Nope, did the priests, altar boys and whoeever speak to each other in Latin? Nope - was theological education conducted in Latin? Nope but the services were all in Latin but hardly anyone spoke the language - what an utter shock.
I read that myself earlier today. If it obviously came from French why would you quote something that said it also came 'directly from Latin intelligentia'. Your etymologist is not coming down either way on this question. Apparently the individual allows for either explanation or both.. if that makes any sense. And this is your basis for insulting my education? If you want to die on the hill, you should at least present some evidence.
Because you left out the bit where it came from 'Old French' which shows what a disingenous, passive aggressive little tosspot you are - no wonder
@Contrarian Expatriate would rip you a new one on here every day.
If it 'obviously' came from French - then your original statement that the word came directly from Latin was incorrect - again.
That's why Bede called it 'book Latin.' But it was a language for scholars and academic terms could make its way into the language.
I never said that French words did not come into the English language. Of course they did. And a number of Latin words came in through French. The issue is whether Latin words came in apart from French. It's not a big deal to me, but some etymologies make the claim and the video and other page I posted indicated that this was the case.
Well, if it isn't a 'big deal' to you then stop talking about something you know little to nothing about. You admit you know little to nothing about it but here you are blabbering on about something you know - in your own words - nothing about.
Your best case estimate was 100 words were Latin derivatives and then go on to make the case that 100 words was a significant number
You utter utter joke
French speaking Norse. But they might have been French enough if they took French wives like Rollo did.
They were culturally French, spoke French and lived there. Most of Northern Europe has Viking/Norse origins.
I don't care to prove anything.
But here you are blabbering away
You are the one making claims contrary to the sources I cited. 100 words can be very important if they are very frequently used.
Except very few if any are in the top 100-500 used words list.
Some of the ones on the list are, and others are not. If I post links to some really key Latin words in the language, the number is too small. If I point to academic terms, they aren't true English. You haven't presented any evidence to show that the evidence I presented is false. Why don't you do that if you want to continue the conversation.
The evidence you have posted is false. Why, anyone with half a brain can see it.
Anglo-Saxon, or something similar, existed on the mainland in Europe before the Anglo-Saxon mercenaries were hired by the Celtic groups in Europe to defend them and decided to take over. In the 500's it was reasonably mutually intelligible with Saxon dialects in Europe.
But not in England. And those Anglo Saxon dialects had no links with Latin or the Brythonic languages that existed in the British Isles at the time. Just a nonsensical point.